If you file for divorce after you kill someone, creditors can “pierce the veil” so to speak. Technically tort claims can go after non-exempt community property, but they are supposed to go to the tortfeasor’s separate property first, then the tortfeasor’s sole management community property (things like his income; bank accounts in his own name; things titled in his name only), then and only then after non-exempt community property (homestead, most retirement, etc. is exempt from judgment).
In this case, the divorce was filed well ahead of the tort; and it sounds like it was probably settled in mediation (reading between the lines based on how the divorce was granted with little fanfare - so probably the decree was based on a mediated settlement agreement). If that’s the case, all community property would have been partitioned as of the date of the MSA, meaning there is no longer any community property even before divorce is granted. The only thing that a spouses’s separate property is liable for is “necessaries” (living expenses, medical bills, etc.) for the other spouse. So no way a tort judgment can reach the ex’s separate property.
So there’s little to no chance that the ex wife is liable for his tort claim since it occurred well after separation and after the divorce was filed; and even if there was some community liability her exposure would only be to non-exempt community property (of which there is likely none).